Ask LLOG: Convenant? From L.J.: Could you explain the real pronunciation of "covenant"? In American English, the first vowel is not like that in British English as shown in the Oxford English Dictionary. Please see the attachment. However, theoretically, a word cannot have three schwas because the stress cannot be assigned. Could the first vowel be actually a longer one? I'll answer the question, while indulging in a short rant about the faults of the International Phonetic Alphabet (and the worse faults of its use, in dictionaries and elsewhere). To start with, here's the OED's audio for its two top-row pronunciations "British English" /ËkÊvÉnÉnt/ and "U.S. English" /ËkÉvÉnÉnt/ Your browser does not support the audio element. Curiously, the two non-IPA spelled pronunciations are identical, both KUV-uh-nuhnt âŠwhich is actually fine, since I perceive no difference in perceptual vowel quality between the first syllables of the two (audio) versions. (If there's a standard term for non-IPA spelled pronunciations of that general kind, I don't know what it is â so I'll call them "lah-lah-lah".) Even more curiously, the alternative "British English" pronunciation (given in IPA as /ËkÊvnÌ©Ént/ instead of /ËkÊvÉnÉnt/, and in lah-lah-lah as "KUV-uhn-uhnt") is actually bit-wise identical in audio waveform samples to the first British pronunciation â that is, the audio is the exact same file, decorated with a (therefore empty) claim about a difference in syllabification. OK, now we get to the question, about how stress can be assigned to one of the three schwas in /ËkÉvÉnÉnt/. The background problem is a fundamental equivocation about what "schwa" means. Many (not all) unstressed vowels in English are "reduced", which means that they have a unrounded central quality if pronounced in a hyper-articulated syllable-by-syllable style, plausibly represented by IPA [É] ("schwa"). However, in actual speech these vowels can be deleted (= reduced to non-existence), raised or lowered, fronted or backed, rounded or unrounded, nasalized or not, etc., depending on the sounds around them, and the phonetic realization principles of the speaker's idiolect. IPA offers no symbol to represent this situation, so most people (phoneticians, dictionary editors, dialect coaches, whoever) use [É] ("schwa") to fill the gap. This then creates an ambiguity. Does [É] mean an unstressed-and-reduced vowel, whose actual quality might be [ÉȘ] or [É] or [Ê] or etc., depending on circumstances? Or does it mean an unreduced (and perhaps stressed) vowel , in the phonological category that J.C. Wells assigns to the STRUT lexical class, and whose phonetic quality in a particular case might be perceived to correspond best to IPA [É]? For most people â though apparently not (some of) the OED's editors â the solution is to reserve the use of [É] for the meaning "unstressed reduced vowel", and to used [Ê] to represent the pronunciation of stressed STRUT vowels. This is obviously not what the OED editors have done, though their choice is undermined by their own lah-lah-lah transcriptions and by the phonetic quality of the audio clips they provide. For comparison, see the entries for covenant from Merriam-Webster, Wiktionary, Cambridge, and so on. As etymological background, see the Wikipedia entry for Hebrew "shva". And in place of a longer IPA rant, you can take a look at "Why I don't love the International Phonetic Alphabet", 1/2/2008 "How truck starts", 8/9/2011 "On beyond the (International Phonetic) Alphabet", 5/19/2018 "Farther on beyond the IPA", 1/18/2020 "First novels", 2/13/2022 "Pronunciation evolution", 3/15/2022 "More post-IPA astronauts", 3/16/2022 "What 'IPA' means nowâŠ", 9/28/2022 "Steele v. Monboddo", 7/12/2025 "Comftrable", 9/21/2025 Update â There's obviously more to said about the OED's different editorial standards for IPA vs. lah-lah-lah pronunciation representations. As another example, here's tactical: https://languagelog.ldc.upenn.edu/nll/?p=74476&utm_source=rss&utm_medium=rss&utm_campaign=ask-llog-convenant #rss #feeds #linksharing #qwibbit